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So, here I am, working on my homework for Epistles (the study of Paul's letters, both those we know are his and those that were probably only attributed to him). We're starting with Philemon, which has always been one of my favorites (short, sweet, and to the point--and boy, what a point) even though it's not one you see often. It's just so wonderfully ironic and slippery, lots of fun to read (and only 25 verses total!). The assignment is to translate the first seven verses and answer a number of questions about them. Question number 8b:
"What is the affect of what Paul claims he does in v. 4?"
I suppose there is a slight (very slight) possibility he really meant to use affect instead of effect--the effect of Paul's claim causes an affect in the readers, after all. But I highly doubt it.
This man has a doctorate. He teaches at a grad school. He hasn't learned to proof-read better than that?
And yes, I know, it's one of my pet peeves and I doubt anyone else will notice it, and it's not like any of his degrees are in English, probably. Still. Aargh!
Edited To Add: he did it again in question 17!
"What is the affect of what Paul claims he does in v. 4?"
I suppose there is a slight (very slight) possibility he really meant to use affect instead of effect--the effect of Paul's claim causes an affect in the readers, after all. But I highly doubt it.
This man has a doctorate. He teaches at a grad school. He hasn't learned to proof-read better than that?
And yes, I know, it's one of my pet peeves and I doubt anyone else will notice it, and it's not like any of his degrees are in English, probably. Still. Aargh!
Edited To Add: he did it again in question 17!
